LPI 701-100 practice test

Question 1

How is cloud-init integrated with a managed system image?

• A. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-worker command which has to be invoked periodically within the running instance.
• B. cloud-init provides systemd units which must be included in several stages of the booting process of the instance.
• C. cloud-init provides its own startup mechanism which replaces the instances original init system, such as systemd.
• D. cloud-init provides a Linux kernel module that must be included and loaded in the instances initramfs.
• E. cloud-init provides the cloud-init-daemon service which is launched during startup and keeps the instance in sync with the desired configuration.

Question 2

Which of the following sections must exist in a Packer template?

• A. images
• B. provisioners
• C. builders
• D. variables
• E. post-processsors

Question 3

What must be the first line of a plain text user-data configuration containing YAML configuration for
cloud-init?
A. cloud-config:
B. --- cloud-config
C. #!/usr/bin/cloud-init
D. [cloud-config]
E. #cloud-config

Question 4

How does Vagrant run virtual machines?

• A. Vagrant uses a vagrant-specific hypervisor called VagrantVM.
• B. Vagrant has to be run within a running virtual machine which is not controlled by Vagrant.
• C. Vagrant ships with an embedded version of VirtualBox.
• D. Vagrant uses so-called provides which control external hypervisors such as VirtualBox.
• E. Vagrant generates virtual machine images but does not provide a mechanism to run them.

Question 5

Which security issues exist for most publicly available Vagrant boxes? (Choose three correct
answers.)
A. They accept SSH logins from the user vagrant with the password vagrant.
B. They accept SSH logins from the user vagrant with a publicly available SSH key pair.
C. The vagrant user can use sudo to obtain root privileges without additional authentication.
D. Their whole file system, including configuration files, is writable by any user, including vagrant.
E. They export their file system via NFS with full write permissions without any additional
restrictions.

Question 6

What does the command packer validate template.json do?
A. The command verifies that the latest build of the template can be run without downloading
additional images or artifacts.
B. The command verifies that the file template.json is a syntactically correct and complete Packer
template.
C. The command verifies that all existing artifacts generated by template.json have their original
checksums.
D. The command verifies that all source images referenced in template.json are available and have
valid cryptographic signatures.
E. The command verifies that images generated previously by template.json still use the most recent
source images.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is true about load balancers?

• A. Load balancers are a security risk because they obfuscate the origin of connections.
• B. Load balancer help to improve the availability and scalability of a service.
• C. Load balancers are a single point of failure because they cannot be deployed redundantly.
• D. Load balancer require access to private keys in order to be able to forward HTTPS traffic.
• E. Load balancers cannot use connection content, such as HTTP cookies, to route traffic.

Question 8

A service should be provided to arbitrary clients on the Internet using HTTPS. Any standard client on
the Internet should be able to consume the service without further configuration. Which of the
following approaches can be used to implement these requirements? (Choose three correct
answers.)

• A. Configure the web servers to not use a server certificate when serving HTTPS.
• B. Generate a self-signed certificates during the deployment of each backend server.
• C. Use a certificate issuing service to request certificates during each server deployment.
• D. Use a load balancer that decrypts incoming requests and passes them on in plain HTTP.
• E. Install a wildcard certificate and the respective private key on all the backend servers.

Question 9

How does Prometheus gather information about monitored hosts and services?
A. It implements the ICMP and SNMP protocols to ping and query remote services.
B. It opens a webhook where monitored applications have to submit various metrics.
C. It uses HTTP to retrieve JSON encoded metrics from the monitored objects.
D. It queries a relational database for metrics written to the database by monitored applications.
E. It runs scripts on the Prometheus server which perform tests and return various metrics.

Question 10

Which sections can exist in a Logstash configuration file? (Choose three correct answers.)
A. output
B. filter
C. input
D. forward
E. generate

Question 11

A recently installed application writes log data to /opt/app/log/info.log. If Filebeat is already
installed and set up for communication with a remote Logstash, what has to be done in order to
submit the log data of the new application to Logstash?

• A. Add an additional input channel with the option source => /opt/app/log/info.log to the Logstash configuration.
• B. Configure logrotate to execute filebeat I /opt/app/log/info.log 0 after each rotation of /opt/app/log/info.log.
• C. Add the log file to the path option within the log prospector in the Filebeat configuration and restart Filebeat.
• D. Add a new cron job that invokes filebeat –i /opt/app/log/info.log periodically.
• E. Replace /opt/app/log/info.log by a symbolic link to /dev/filebeat and restart the new application.

Question 12

Which of the log messages below matches the following Logstash grok filter?
grok {
match => [message, %{SYSLOGBASE} new node %{IPORHOST:node} ]
}

• A. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode: new node 198.51.100.103 at clustermanager:12353
• B. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[12353]: new node 198.51.100.103
• C. Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode clustermanager[198.51.100.103]: new node
• D. %{SYSLOG-FROM:headnode clustermanager[12353]} new node 198.51.100.103
• E. clustermanager[12353]: Jun 30 00:36:49 headnode new node 198.51.100.103

Question 13

Which section of the Prometheus configuration defines which nodes are monitored?
A. scrape_config
B. targets
C. rules
D. listener
E. nodes

Question 14

A Dockerfile contains the statements:
COPY data/ /data/
VOLUME /data
What happens when the resulting container is started without any additional volume configuration?
(Choose two correct answers.)

• A. Files existing in /data/ in the image are not available in the running container.
• B. Changes to files within /data/ affect the Docker image and all other containers derived from it.
• C. Existing files from /data/ in the image are copied to the new volume.
• D. An error is raised because /data/ already contains data when the volume is mounted.
• E. A new volume is created and mounted to /data/ within the new container.

Question 15

Consider the following Kubernetes Deployment:

With the ReplicaSet:

And the Pods:

What happens if one of the Pods is terminated with the command kubect1 pod delete?

• A. The remaining Pods are stopped and the Deployment switches to the state Failed.
• B. The number of replicas in the ReplicaSet is changed to 4.
• C. The ReplicaSet immediately starts a new replacement Pod.
• D. The remaining Pods are stopped and a new ReplicaSet is started.
• E. The Deployment switches to the state Degraded.